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Message: [QUOTE="John A, post: 2297957, member: 88730"] Ok, just asking because I don't think most people actually understand it. I think they believe if 4-bet range is 4%, they think opponent is 4-betting 4% of their range, and that's not correct. It's actually a ratio of how often someone is opening their entire range at that position, by how often they 4-bet that range. So if someone opens 20% and their 4bet range is 4%, then they are 4-betting 8% of their entire range in that situation. So there's going to be a good amount of bluffs in that case. To your other question, that's kind of impossible for me to answer. I don't know how often you were playing hands, or what other dynamics were going on. I'd say if you suspect that's the case, then there's probably some truth there, but I couldn't say for sure. [/QUOTE]