S
Stonethor
Rising Star
Bronze Level
- Joined
- Aug 10, 2017
- Total posts
- 7
- Poker Chips
- 0
- Casino Coins
- 0
- #1
Hiya guys, I was wondering, I'm reading a poker book and it's explaining how effective odds work and how it turns to whether or not a hand is playable to the end if your effective odds are not as good as pot odds. I understand the concept in limit hold em but how can this be applied to no limit hold em seeing as that the player can bet as much as he wants ? It seems to me at least this works only for limit hold em which is why I'm asking. Many thanks.













