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General Poker
"Mucked" Hand Question
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[QUOTE="OzExorcist, post: 2269738, member: 23910"] Interesting - I hadn't considered that as a possible application of the rule. Here's the definition of "bet" under [URL="http://www.homepokertourney.com/roberts-rules-of-poker.htm#GLOSSARY"]Robert's Rules[/URL] though: [INDENT][B]BET:[/B] (1) The act of making a wager before anyone else on a betting round. (2)The chips used by a player to bet, call, or raise.[/INDENT] Based on Part 2 of that definition, it seems the chips Player A used to call count as a "bet". There's also a Part b to Rule 1 about dead hands that I didn't quote earlier because I thought it was irrelevant (as were parts c-f which deal with things like irregularities in stud poker), but here it is: [INDENT][b]DEAD HANDS:[/B] 1. Your hand is declared dead if: (a) You fold or announce that you are folding when facing a bet or a raise. (b) You throw your hand away in a forward motion causing another player to act behind you (even if not facing a bet).[/INDENT] If you take the term "bet" to include calls, as it's defined above, then the rule is pretty clear. If you only take it in the usual poker meaning of the word though then it leaves a grey area, and Part b of the rule suggests you should [i]always[/i] be able to retrieve your folded hand, as long as the next player hasn't acted yet. FWIW I don't [b]think[/b] the latter is intended to be the case, because if it was it'd leave the door wide open for angle shooting. Players could regularly "fold" their hands, watch what the next player is doing, and then retrieve their cards after they get some information on their intentions, for example. Rule 2 gives management more than enough discretion to correct innocent mistakes, which is what makes me think that they do intend calls to be counted as "bets" for the purposes of Rule 1-a. I guess it's still open to interpretation though. Wow. That's gotta be about the nerdiest thing I've written in a long time :p [/QUOTE]
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