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[QUOTE="OnyxPanther, post: 1537905, member: 70844"] Probability though right? If the board comes AAJ K 9 then it is less likely that the next hand will be the same or close to the same because that probability chance just hit. Don't get me wrong it does happen! This is where I am getting confused. In probabilities every possible outcome is a 'chance'. Take a dice cube for example: 6 sides, 6 possible outcomes/chances. PlayerA rolls and the cube lands on 6, odds are that the cube will not land on 6 the next roll. Possible, but not probable. Now lets say PlayerA's 2nd roll DOES land on a 6. (Does this raise the probability that the 3rd roll will be a lower number?) The odds are still the same, as the cube still has 6 sides but because PlayerA landed on 6 twice shouldn't it raise the likelyhood that the 3rd roll will have a different result? This may be a never ending debate and lost cause for the simple fact that; while highly immprobable, PlayerA could in fact land the cube on 6 20 times in a row. It just seems like each roll he lands the improbable, the more probable it should be that he misses the next roll.... SHHEEESSSHHH!!!!! I'm having a flashback from high school when I went through this same problem and I think now that I'm remembering back that I had to call it a draw because for every chance of probability there is also a chance of improbability in a balanced game of chance. I would like some knowledgable poker players to examine my first post and give me feedback on that scenario because poker has enough variance and range to where I think the equilibrium often shifts in terms of what is probable vs. improbable. Thats why in poker you have lots of wins coming from face cards and aces, but the improbable 75 offsuit wins on a percentage as well. Done thinking in depth on this until i can get some input from people who really know how to calculate odds and factor in variance for probability ;) [/QUOTE]
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