Couple of questions about percentages.

wagon596

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  • #1
1.What are the percentages that at least one player at a ten player table be dealt a pocket pair.
2. What percent, for lets say 4 or 5 players, will pair the board on the flop.
Thanks
 
wagon596

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  • #2
I did some research, so I'll answer my own question..lol
Dealt a pair- 0.0588 %
Pair the board- 29.0 %
 
ovitoo

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  • #3
wagon596 said:
I did some research, so I'll answer my own question..lol
Dealt a pair- 0.0588 %
Pair the board- 29.0 %

Im not sure thats correct:hmmmm:
 
Matt Vaughan

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  • #4
odds any given player is dealt a PP:

First player: First card can be any card in the deck, but second card must be the same number card, of which there are 3.

52/52 x 3/51 = 3/51 = 0.0588 = 5.88%

Which is what you said, except that you didn't quite remember how decimal to percentage changes work. If you're only talking about a few players you could multiply it by the number of players, but this is not quite correct. Assume the first player was NOT dealt a pocket pair. Now for two numeral sets there are only 3 cards of each of those number remaining in the deck, so things get tricky.

Second player: Again, the first card doesn't matter (50 cards remaining). For the second card, 11/13 times they have 3 ways to draw it, but 2/13 times they have only 2 ways to draw it.

50/50 x ((11/13 x 3/49) + (2/13 x 2/49)) = .0508 = 5.08%

Notice that it's a bit smaller. This calculation gets more complex the more players there are, and depending on what assumptions we make. I'd be curious if anyone has a simpler, more elegant way of tackling the question.
 
wagon596

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  • #5
Scourrge said:
Odds any given player is dealt a PP:

First player: First card can be any card in the deck, but second card must be the same number card, of which there are 3.

52/52 x 3/51 = 3/51 = 0.0588 = 5.88%

Which is what you said, except that you didn't quite remember how decimal to percentage changes work. If you're only talking about a few players you could multiply it by the number of players, but this is not quite correct. Assume the first player was NOT dealt a pocket pair. Now for two numeral sets there are only 3 cards of each of those number remaining in the deck, so things get tricky.

Second player: Again, the first card doesn't matter (50 cards remaining). For the second card, 11/13 times they have 3 ways to draw it, but 2/13 times they have only 2 ways to draw it.

50/50 x ((11/13 x 3/49) + (2/13 x 2/49)) = .0508 = 5.08%

Notice that it's a bit smaller. This calculation gets more complex the more players there are, and depending on what assumptions we make. I'd be curious if anyone has a simpler, more elegant way of tackling the question.
I see what you're saying , I think,, it's one or the other if I'm thinking right. Not both like I posted. Thanks for clearing that up.
 
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ddeely1

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  • #6
I think you get a pocket pair 1/16 hands. I am pretty sure this is the 5.88%. 1/16 is actually 6.25% but that is the fraction I learned.
 
ovitoo

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  • #7
you had it wagon. just misplaced your decimal.
 
Matt Vaughan

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  • #8
ddeely1 said:
I think you get a pocket pair 1/16 hands. I am pretty sure this is the 5.88%. 1/16 is actually 6.25% but that is the fraction I learned.

The number is exactly what I quoted for a single player before:

52/52 x 3/52 = 5.88% Approximations are fine, but this is where the number actually comes from mathematically.

Although I always learned it as the odds of being dealt a given pocket pair is 1/220, so with 13 different types of pocket pairs, 13/220. 1/16 is close, but I feel like it's more useful to consider it in percentages anyway. Idk about you, but I have trouble visualizing 13/220. 1/16 is a bit easier I suppose since you can think of halving something 4 times, but meh. Percentages ftw imo :)
 
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